This (on the bottom of the page) is Din klara sol går åter opp in D major.
the last chords A-D is confusing. I don't see how any of the voices in the A chord lead to the F# note.
This is not real voice leading. What is going on?
Why do we olay the F#?
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The voices in the A chord don't have to "lead" directly to the f# - it is perfectly fine to let the tenor jump from the a to the f#.
We sing/play the f# because d-a-d would sound a bit shallow.
I can't see any terrible mistakes in that setting.
You don't mention if the piece is in D major or d minor, so I'll assume D major.
The piece ends with an authentic cadence in contrary motion. As Peterboroughdiapason mentions, the piece doesn't necessarily have to have the 5th of the chord represented in the final cadence, but personally, I prefer having all members of the chord represented (i.e. having the A represented in the Alto).
To be really picky, the alto C# ought to resolve upwards to D (in unison with the soprano part). However Bach frequently did the same as this version and, if it's good enough for him.........!
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